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NEW QUESTION # 37
A 26-year-old woman, gravida 3, para 2, presents for her 1st antenatal visit. She states she is at 26 weeks' gestation and is healthy. On abdominal examination, her fundus is palpated at the umbilicus. Which one of the following is the most likely explanation for this finding?
- A. Intrauterine growth restriction
- B. Oligohydramnios
- C. Dating error
- D. Partial hydatidiform mole
- E. Bicornuate uterus
Answer: C
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:
At 20 weeks' gestation, the uterine fundus typically reaches the umbilicus. If the fundal height is lower than expected at a stated gestational age of 26 weeks, the most likely explanation-especially with no prior care- is a dating error.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Obstetrics:
"Fundal height at the umbilicus corresponds to ~20 weeks. In women lacking early prenatal care, dating errors are common causes of fundal height discrepancy." MCCQE1 Objectives (Obstetrics > 80-3: Routine Antenatal Care):
"Candidates must interpret fundal height and reconcile discrepancies with gestational age." IUGR and oligohydramnios are possible but require imaging confirmation. Bicornuate uterus may cause fundal shape anomalies but not significant dating discrepancy. A mole (D) would increase, not decrease, size.
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NEW QUESTION # 38
An 80-year-old woman presents to your office with weight loss and generalized weakness. Her husband calls you after the appointment and asks that his wife not be told if she is diagnosed with cancer as hearing this will likely "kill her." Investigations subsequently show that she has metastatic lung cancer. Which one of the following is the best next step?
- A. Book an immediate appointment with your patient.
- B. Tell the patient she requires a computed tomography scan of the chest.
- C. Telephone her to inform her she has a bad pneumonia and prescribe antibiotics.
- D. Tell her husband she has metastatic lung cancer.
- E. Arrange an urgent consultation with her children to confirm her wishes.
Answer: A
Explanation:
According to Canadian medical ethics and legal standards, physicians mustcommunicate diagnosis and treatment options directly to the patient, unless the patient hasexplicitly waived their right to knowor delegated decision-making authority. The patient's autonomy is paramount.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Ethical, Legal, and Organizational Medicine, "Truth-Telling" Section:
"Physicians are obligated to disclose relevant health information to patients unless the patient has clearly indicated a desire not to be informed. Family members do not have the authority to request that information be withheld from a competent adult." MCCQE1 Objectives (ELOM > Ethical Issues > Medical Ethics):
"The candidate must be able to apply the principles of patient autonomy... This includes full disclosure of diagnosis, prognosis, and treatment options unless waived by the patient." Booking an immediate appointment (C) allows you to assess her decision-making capacity and proceed with informed discussion. The other options either bypass the patient (A, B, E) or provide misleading/incomplete information (A, D), which violates ethical and legal obligations.
NEW QUESTION # 39
A 37-year-old woman presents to your clinic with frequent palpitations. She has no other symptoms and is quite active. Physical examination and resting electrocardiogram findings are normal. Which one of the following is the best next step?
- A. Holter monitoring
- B. Echocardiogram
- C. Treadmill exercise test
- D. #-Blocker
Answer: A
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:
The most appropriate next step for a patient with intermittent palpitations and a normal ECG is Holter monitoring (or event monitoring). This can capture and correlate symptoms with cardiac rhythm.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Cardiology, "Palpitations":
"Holter or event monitoring is indicated when the initial ECG is normal but the patient has episodic symptoms such as palpitations." MCCQE1 Objectives (Cardiology > 34-2: Arrhythmia):
"Candidates must use ambulatory ECG monitoring to investigate intermittent palpitations when resting ECG is unremarkable." Echocardiogram (A) assesses structural issues but not rhythm. #-blockers (B) should not be started without diagnosis. Stress testing (D) is for ischemia.
NEW QUESTION # 40
Which one of the following bodies decides whether a physician is permitted to practise medicine in a province or territory?
- A. The board of the hospital or health region where the physician wants to practise
- B. The College of Family Physicians of Canada or the Royal College of Physicians and Surgeons of Canada
- C. The provincial or territorial medical licensing authority
- D. The provincial or territorial medical association
- E. The provincial or territorial Ministry of Health
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 41
A 67-year-old farmer presents with a 6-month history of progressive weakness in both arms. He now has difficulty in climbing but says he can still drive his tractor. Examination shows slight but definite atrophy of muscles of pectoral girdle, especially over his scapula. Fasciculations are visible. There is hyperreflexia of most tendon reflexes of arms and legs, left ankle clonus and left Babinski reflex. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Multiple sclerosis.
- B. Astrocytoma of pons.
- C. Parkinson disease.
- D. Cerebellar degeneration.
- E. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis.
Answer: E
Explanation:
This presentation is most consistent with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS), characterized by progressive degeneration of both upper motor neurons (UMN) and lower motor neurons (LMN). The patient has LMN signs in the upper limbs-muscle atrophy of the shoulder girdle and visible fasciculations-alongside UMN signs-hyperreflexia, ankle clonus, and a Babinski reflex. The combination of UMN and LMN findings in multiple body regions with a gradual, progressive course over months strongly supports ALS. Multiple sclerosis typically produces disseminated neurologic deficits separated in time and space and does not usually cause prominent fasciculations or progressive LMN wasting. Cerebellar degeneration causes ataxia, dysmetria, and gait instability rather than mixed UMN/LMN signs. A pontine astrocytoma would more often cause cranial nerve deficits and brainstem signs and is less likely to present as a diffuse, progressive mixed motor neuron syndrome in an older adult. Parkinson disease causes bradykinesia, rigidity, and resting tremor, not Babinski or fasciculations. MCCQE objectives emphasize recognizing mixed UMN/LMN patterns and identifying ALS as a key progressive motor neuron disorder.
NEW QUESTION # 42
The parents of a 12-year-old boy present to your clinic to discuss their son's submersion injury. The patient was seen in hospital for 6 months after being pulled unresponsive from a lake at his friend's house; he had been submerged for an estimated 20 minutes. After extended resuscitation and a 2-month stay in the intensive care unit, he remains in a persistent vegetative state but needs no respiratory or cardiac support. When evaluating the discharge from hospital, which one of the following is most appropriate?
- A. Continue intensive rehabilitation in the acute care hospital for the best chance of recovery
- B. Plan for a progressive return to school with a home caregiver
- C. Organize scheduled readmissions to hospital to provide the family with respite care
- D. Advocate for home care support so that the parents can care for their son safely at home
- E. Recommend placement in a palliative care facility
Answer: D
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:
The patient is in a persistent vegetative state and medically stable, meaning he does not need continued hospitalization. The goal is to provide appropriate long-term care in the least restrictive setting, typically at home with robust home care support services. This approach aligns with ethical care, family-centered goals, and medical appropriateness.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Pediatrics / Neurodevelopment & Chronic Care:
"Home care with appropriate medical and caregiver support is often the best setting for children with severe neurological impairments who are medically stable." MCCQE1 Objectives (Pediatrics > 77-5: Chronic Neurological Disorders):
"Candidates must assess discharge planning and coordinate home care support for children with long-term care needs." Palliative facility (B) is not appropriate unless end-of-life is imminent. School (C) is not feasible in this state.
Hospital readmission for respite (D) is not standard. Rehabilitation (E) has little utility in persistent vegetative state.
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NEW QUESTION # 43
A mother brings her 10-year-old son for his well-child check-up. She mentions that her 38-year-old husband has just had a heart attack due to high cholesterol levels and wants information regarding prevention of cardiovascular disease for her son. Which one of the following is the best approach to managing this problem?
- A. Prescribe a low-fat diet for the son
- B. Send the son for a lipid profile test
- C. Reassure the mother as children do not have elevated lipid levels
- D. Request a serum homocysteine and hemoglobin A1c
- E. Prescribe a weight-lifting exercise program for her son
Answer: B
Explanation:
Children with a first-degree relative who has premature coronary artery disease or hypercholesterolemia should undergo fasting lipid screening between ages 2-10. Since the child is 10, screening is indicated.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Pediatrics, "Preventive Care in Children":
"Lipid screening is recommended for children #2 years old with a family history of early cardiovascular disease or hypercholesterolemia." MCCQE1 Objectives (Pediatrics > 78-1: Preventive Medicine):
"Candidates must screen children at high risk of cardiovascular disease appropriately, including lipid profile for familial hyperlipidemia." Diet and exercise counseling may follow screening, but testing is the first step. Reassurance alone (C) is inappropriate. Homocysteine (E) and HbA1c are not first-line tests in this setting.
NEW QUESTION # 44
A 65-year-old woman presents to the office for follow-up regarding vaginal bleeding. Her last visit was 2 months ago. At that visit, the results of a pelvic examination and a Papanicolaou test were normal. She also had an endometrial biopsy but there was "insufficient material for diagnosis." She reports that she is still losing small amounts of blood almost every day. On history, she has been taking continuous combined hormone replacement therapy for 10 years because of vasomotor symptoms. Which one of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- A. Change hormones to a selective estrogen receptor modulator.
- B. Order a colposcopy.
- C. Decrease the dosage of progestin.
- D. Refer for a hysterectomy.
- E. Organize a hysteroscopy.
Answer: E
Explanation:
Persistent postmenopausal bleeding requires thorough evaluation. An inadequate endometrial biopsy result does not rule out pathology. Hysteroscopy allows for direct visualization and targeted biopsy and is the gold standard when biopsy is non-diagnostic.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Gynecology, "Abnormal Uterine Bleeding and Endometrial Cancer" Section:
"Persistent bleeding with insufficient biopsy requires further evaluation, preferably via hysteroscopy and directed biopsy. This is especially important in patients on HRT or with risk factors for endometrial pathology." MCCQE1 Objectives (Obstetrics & Gynecology > 82-9: Postmenopausal Bleeding):
"Candidates must investigate abnormal bleeding in postmenopausal women with hysteroscopy when endometrial sampling is non-diagnostic." Changing hormones (A), reducing progestin (E), or performing colposcopy (C) are not appropriate without confirming the cause of bleeding.
NEW QUESTION # 45
You perform a literature search of journal articles on the effectiveness of a new antihypertensive for first-line treatment of people aged 35 to 50. You find reports of 4 good quality studies. Three of them show that statistically, the new drug is significantly more effective than the standard treatment, and one shows no difference. Before you conclude that the new antihypertensive is more effective in this group of patients, which one of the following concepts must be given consideration?
- A. Information bias
- B. Systematic error
- C. Publication bias
- D. Random error
- E. The power of the studies
Answer: C
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:
Publication bias refers to the tendency for positive results to be published more often than negative or inconclusive ones. In your review, 3 of 4 studies show positive findings. However, studies showing no effect may not have been published, skewing your impression.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Public Health, Critical Appraisal:
"Publication bias can lead to overestimation of treatment efficacy. Systematic reviews must account for unpublished or negative findings." MCCQE1 Objectives - Preventive Medicine > Critical Appraisal:
"Candidates must recognize and account for biases such as publication bias in interpreting literature." Random error (A) and power (D) affect individual studies. Systematic and information biases (B, E) affect data quality, not publication trends.
NEW QUESTION # 46
A young man and woman who are in a relationship present to the office for prenatal counselling. During the visit, you observe that the man ' s lips appear as shown in the referenced photo.
[Image shows grouped vesicular lesions on erythematous base affecting the lips-classic for herpes labialis (HSV-1).] Which one of the following is the best advice?
- A. The woman should have viral cultures of her cervix
- B. The woman must have a cesarean delivery
- C. The man should avoid performing oral sex during her pregnancy
- D. The woman should take acyclovir throughout her pregnancy
- E. The man needs herpes simplex virus type-specific serology
Answer: C
Explanation:
The patient shows signs of herpes labialis (HSV-1), which can transmit genital herpes via oral sex. This poses a risk to the fetus if maternal infection occurs during pregnancy, especially near delivery. Preventing new genital HSV infection during pregnancy is critical.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Obstetrics:
"HSV-1 can cause genital herpes via oral-genital transmission. Avoid oral sex during outbreaks in pregnancy to prevent primary maternal infection." MCCQE1 Objectives (Obstetrics > 80-3: Infectious Disease in Pregnancy):
"Candidates must understand the importance of preventing new HSV infection during pregnancy and counsel appropriately." Culture (A) is not useful unless symptomatic. Serology (B) is not needed in this context. Cesarean (D) is not indicated unless active genital lesions at delivery. Acyclovir (C) is for infected mothers or near delivery.
NEW QUESTION # 47
An intoxicated 28-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department after being found in the snow. His vital signs are as follows:
Temperature: 33°C
Respiratory rate: 22/min
Heart rate: 123/min
The patient is shivering and displays some dysarthria and ataxia. After his wet clothing is removed, he is provided with a warm blanket. The results of the subsequent physical examination are unremarkable, except for frostbite of the ears and fingers. Which one of the following is the best next step?
- A. Start continuous arteriovenous rewarming.
- B. Continuous warm bladder irrigation.
- C. Set the room temperature to 28°C.
- D. Perform a peritoneal lavage.
- E. Apply heating pads to extremities.
Answer: C
Explanation:
This patient is experiencing mild hypothermia (32-35°C), evidenced by shivering, ataxia, and tachycardia.
First-line management includes passive external rewarming - removing wet clothing, providing warm blankets, and ensuring a warm environment (ambient temperature ~28°C).
Toronto Notes 2023 - Emergency Medicine, Environmental Injuries:
"Mild hypothermia (32-35°C): Treatment includes passive rewarming (warm blankets, warm environment).
Avoid active rewarming methods to extremities due to risk of afterdrop." MCCQE1 Objectives - Internal Medicine > Environmental Exposure:
"Candidates must recognize appropriate levels of hypothermia and select evidence-based rewarming strategies based on severity." Options A, C, and D are used in moderate to severe hypothermia (<32°C or unconscious patients). Heating pads (B) may cause tissue damage, especially with frostbite.
NEW QUESTION # 48
A 32-year-old man presents to the clinic for assessment of a dog bite sustained 3 days ago while traveling in another country. He recalls having seen the dog eat where he was staying, and the animal did not appear well.
On examination, the patient has 2 distinct deep puncture wounds on his left leg. There is an erythematous border but no exudate. He is unsure of his immunization status. Which one of the following is the most appropriate management?
- A. Irrigate the wounds with hydrogen peroxide
- B. Start antibiotic treatment with ciprofloxacin
- C. Give rabies immunoglobulin and vaccine
- D. Arrange for wound debridement
- E. Order serum creatine kinase
Answer: C
Explanation:
Dog bites from animals of unknown rabies status, especially from endemic regions and in patients with uncertain immunization status, require immediate post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) including both rabies immunoglobulin and vaccine. The decision is urgent given the fatal nature of rabies.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Infectious Diseases, "Rabies Exposure":
"Rabies PEP is indicated for bites from animals with unknown vaccination status or those showing abnormal behavior, particularly in endemic regions. PEP includes both vaccine and immunoglobulin." MCCQE1 Objectives (Public Health > 64-1: Rabies and Animal Bites):
"Candidates must recognize indications for rabies post-exposure prophylaxis." Ciprofloxacin (C) is not the antibiotic of choice (amoxicillin-clavulanate is preferred). Hydrogen peroxide (E) can be cytotoxic. Debridement (B) and CK (D) are not immediate priorities here.
NEW QUESTION # 49
You are providing antenatal consultation to a primiparous woman of 37 weeks' gestation who was admitted for labour induction. Repeat prenatal ultrasounds confirm a chronically small fetus who has never demonstrated easily detectable fetal movement. Maternal health has been normal throughout the pregnancy and she has received all antenatal serum screening. This fetus is at significant risk for which one of the following?
- A. Fetal stroke.
- B. Infantile diabetes.
- C. Congenital hypothyroidism.
- D. Chromosomal abnormalities.
- E. Spina bifida.
Answer: D
Explanation:
A fetus that is chronically growth-restricted and has persistently reduced fetal movement raises concern for an underlying fetal condition rather than isolated placental insufficiency. MCCQE objectives emphasize that early-onset or persistent fetal growth restriction , especially when accompanied by abnormal fetal behavior (notably reduced movement), is associated with higher rates of aneuploidy and other chromosomal disorders (e.g., trisomy syndromes), as well as congenital anomalies and neuromuscular disorders. Among the listed options, chromosomal abnormalities best fit the combined pattern of longstanding small size and consistently diminished movement.
Normal maternal serum screening reduces risk but does not eliminate it; screening tests can miss chromosomal abnormalities, and some aneuploidies may not be reliably detected depending on the test used and gestational timing. Spina bifida is more typically associated with elevated maternal serum AFP and structural findings on ultrasound. Fetal stroke is usually an acute event with more abrupt changes. Congenital hypothyroidism and infantile diabetes are not typical causes of markedly reduced fetal movement with chronic growth restriction.
NEW QUESTION # 50
A 19-year-old woman presents to the office. She is a new mother. She shares that she does not intend to vaccinate her son. Which one of the following is the best next step?
- A. Provide education on the risks and benefits of vaccination.
- B. Contact child protection services.
- C. Tell the patient you cannot follow her in your practice but will refer her to a colleague.
- D. Explore with the patient her rationale for not vaccinating her child.
- E. Ask to speak with the patient's parents.
Answer: D
Explanation:
When encountering vaccine hesitancy, the first and most effective step is to open a non-judgmental conversation and explore the patient's reasons. This helps build trust and tailor subsequent education and counseling.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Public Health and Preventive Medicine, Immunization:
"Addressing vaccine hesitancy requires understanding parental concerns. Begin with open-ended questions to identify underlying beliefs and information gaps." MCCQE1 Objectives - Preventive Medicine > Immunization:
"Candidates must demonstrate effective communication with vaccine-hesitant parents, beginning with eliciting their rationale before providing evidence-based recommendations." Jumping to education (B) or punitive measures (C, D) may close communication. The patient is an adult; speaking with her parents (E) violates her autonomy.
NEW QUESTION # 51
A 44-year-old woman presents to the office to discuss contraception. During the gynecologic examination, you notice an anterior cystocele to the hymenal ring. The woman denies any bulge symptoms but does report dribbling of urine, especially when she coughs or jogs.
Which one of the following is the best next step?
- A. Pelvic-floor physiotherapy
- B. Urology consultation
- C. Topical estrogen
- D. Vaginal hysterectomy
- E. No impact sports
Answer: A
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:
This patient has stress urinary incontinence and an incidental cystocele. First-line management of mild pelvic organ prolapse and stress incontinence includes pelvic floor physiotherapy (e.g., Kegel exercises). Surgical options are reserved for severe or refractory cases.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Gynecology, Pelvic Floor Disorders:
"For asymptomatic prolapse or mild stress incontinence, recommend pelvic floor strengthening. Conservative management is preferred before surgical referral." MCCQE1 Objectives - Gynecology > Urogynecology:
"Candidates should initiate pelvic floor therapy in women with mild prolapse or urinary leakage prior to specialist referral." Topical estrogen (B) helps with atrophic vaginitis, not stress incontinence. Hysterectomy (A) and specialist referral (C) are premature. Avoiding impact sports (E) is not a treatment.
NEW QUESTION # 52
A 22-year-old woman, gravida 1, para 0, aborta 0, comes to the office at 10 weeks' gestation for her first prenatal visit. When you ask how she is doing, she becomes tearful and says she has had severe nausea and vomiting. She is not taking her prenatal vitamins regularly and feels very guilty about it. She is worried that she is harming the fetus. Which one of the following is the most appropriate management of this patient's case?
- A. Refer her for counselling to manage her feelings of guilt
- B. Advise her to replace her vitamin with folic acid only until her nausea improves
- C. Prescribe ginger tablets to be taken 4 times daily
- D. Tell her she should continue to take her prenatal vitamins daily regardless of nausea
- E. Suggest that she take cannabinoids 30 minutes before taking her prenatal vitamins
Answer: C
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:
Ginger is a first-line, evidence-based non-pharmacologic treatment for nausea and vomiting in pregnancy. It's well tolerated and effective. Addressing nausea will help her resume vitamin use and reduce distress.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Obstetrics, "Nausea and Vomiting in Pregnancy":
"Ginger 250 mg four times daily is safe and effective for mild to moderate nausea." MCCQE1 Objectives (Obstetrics > 80-1: Early Pregnancy Management):
"Candidates must treat nausea and vomiting in pregnancy using safe and effective options." Folic acid alone (A) is less effective than a full prenatal vitamin. B may help, but nausea should be addressed first. C lacks empathy for her symptoms. D (cannabinoids) is not recommended in pregnancy.
NEW QUESTION # 53
A 2.5-year-old boy is brought to the Emergency Department after he consumed a button-shaped battery. Chest and abdomen radiographies are performed. Which one of the following locations mandates urgent removal of the battery?
- A. Duodenum
- B. Esophagus
- C. Ileum
- D. Jejunum
- E. Stomach
Answer: B
Explanation:
Button batteries lodged in the esophagus require urgent endoscopic removal due to risk of tissue necrosis, perforation, and tracheoesophageal fistula within hours. Batteries beyond the esophagus may pass spontaneously if the child is asymptomatic.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Pediatrics, "Foreign Body Ingestion":
"Button batteries in the esophagus are medical emergencies and must be removed immediately. Batteries in the stomach or intestines may be observed if the child is asymptomatic." MCCQE1 Objectives (Pediatrics > 78-2: Gastrointestinal Emergencies):
"Candidates must identify when foreign body ingestion poses immediate risk and requires emergency intervention." Batteries in the stomach or intestines (A-C, E) usually pass without complication, especially if the child is asymptomatic and the battery is <2 cm.
NEW QUESTION # 54
An 8-year-old girl is brought by her father to the office with a 2-week history of red, itchy, and watery eyes.
She is otherwise healthy. On examination, there is no discharge or difficulty with vision. Pupil examination findings are normal. The patient's eyes are shown in the referenced photo. Which one of the following topical therapies is the best recommendation?
- A. Antiviral.
- B. Antifungal.
- C. Antihistamine.
- D. Antibiotic.
- E. Glucocorticoid.
Answer: C
Explanation:
This child presents with bilateral red, itchy, watery eyes for 2 weeks without purulent discharge, pain, or visual changes-classic features of allergic conjunctivitis . MCCQE objectives emphasize distinguishing allergic conjunctivitis from infectious causes. Allergic conjunctivitis is characterized by pruritus (key symptom), tearing, conjunctival injection, and often a history of atopy or seasonal triggers. Vision remains normal, and there is no mucopurulent discharge (which would suggest bacterial infection) or vesicular lesions
/dendritic ulcers (suggesting viral/herpetic causes).
Topical antihistamines (often combined with mast cell stabilizers) are first-line therapy and effectively reduce itching and redness by blocking histamine-mediated inflammation.
Topical antibiotics are unnecessary without bacterial features. Antivirals are reserved for suspected herpetic disease. Antifungals are rarely indicated in routine conjunctivitis. Topical glucocorticoids are not first-line and may cause adverse effects (e.g., increased intraocular pressure) and should only be used under ophthalmologic supervision.
Therefore, a topical antihistamine is the most appropriate initial treatment.
NEW QUESTION # 55
A 45-year-old man with a developmental delay and a history of disruptive behavior presents to the clinic looking for his family doctor. He is well known to the clinic. He appears drunk and has accidentally broken 2 large beer bottles in the waiting room but remains calm. The office staff requests your help to deal with this situation. Which one of the following is the most appropriate initial step?
- A. Tell the patient that his behavior is unacceptable and ask him to leave.
- B. Call the social work crisis intervention team.
- C. Instruct the office staff to ignore him and let him calm down.
- D. Call the police, given the patient's presentation.
- E. Assess the patient promptly.
Answer: E
Explanation:
This is a known patient with intellectual disability and behavioral concerns. The presentation of alcohol intoxication in a calm patient who inadvertently broke bottles warrants prompt, nonjudgmental clinical assessment before escalating. De-escalation and safety assessment come first.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Psychiatry, "Psychiatric Emergencies and Crisis Management":
"In agitated or intoxicated individuals with developmental disability, a calm approach and prompt physician assessment are essential to prevent escalation and assess for medical or psychiatric needs." MCCQE1 Objectives (Psychiatry > Crisis and Acute Presentations > 72-2):
"Candidates must assess potentially disruptive patients with dignity and caution before involving law enforcement or security. Physician engagement is often calming." Police intervention (A) is premature and may escalate matters. Ignoring (B) risks safety. Asking him to leave (C) without assessment is inappropriate. Social work (E) may help, but after medical triage.
NEW QUESTION # 56
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