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Cisco 100-160 Exam Syllabus Topics:
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NEW QUESTION # 51
Which state of data is appropriate for encrypting sensitive information stored in a database?
- A. Data in transit
- B. Data at rest
- C. Data in motion
- D. Data in use
Answer: B
Explanation:
Data at rest refers to data that is stored on storage devices such as hard drives, databases, or backups. Encrypting sensitive information in a database while it is at rest ensures that even if the database is compromised, the data remains protected, and unauthorized access or theft of the data becomes more challenging.
NEW QUESTION # 52
Which of the following represents a technique used in Classless Inter-Domain Routing (CIDR)?
- A. Binary notation for IP addresses
- B. Compressed MAC addresses
- C. 32-bit IP addresses
- D. Variable-length subnet masks
Answer: D
Explanation:
Classless Inter-Domain Routing (CIDR) is a technique used to allocate and manage IP addresses more efficiently. It involves using variable-length subnet masks (VLSMs), which allow the network to have subnets of different sizes. VLSMs provide flexibility in allocating IP addresses by allowing the network administrator to choose the appropriate number of network and host bits based on the network requirements.
NEW QUESTION # 53
Which of the following is a characteristic of an IPv6 address?
- A. Supports a maximum of 4.3 billion unique addresses
- B. Consists of 32 bits
- C. Can be represented by both decimal and binary notation
- D. Uses colons as separators
Answer: D
Explanation:
An IPv6 address consists of 128 bits, which is four times the size of an IPv4 address. Unlike IPv4 addresses that use periods (dots) as separators, IPv6 addresses use colons as separators. For example, an IPv6 address could be written as 2001:0db8:85a3:0000:0000:8a2e:0370:7334.
NEW QUESTION # 54
What is the primary characteristic of an Advanced Persistent Threat (APT) compared to traditional attacks?
- A. APTs are random and indiscriminate in their targets
- B. APTs are primarily aimed at causing immediate damage to systems
- C. APTs are easily detectable by conventional security measures
- D. APTs involve persistent and prolonged attacks on specific targets
Answer: D
Explanation:
The primary characteristic of an APT is its persistent and prolonged nature. Unlike traditional attacks, which may be brief and target multiple entities, APTs specifically focus on a particular target for an extended period of time. This allows the attackers to gather more information and potentially cause significant damage.
NEW QUESTION # 55
Which of the following is the primary objective of vulnerability assessment in cybersecurity?
- A. To assess the impact of identified vulnerabilities on the system.
- B. To determine the likelihood of a vulnerability being exploited.
- C. To evaluate the effectiveness of existing security controls.
- D. To identify and remove all vulnerabilities from a system.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The primary objective of vulnerability assessment is to determine the probability of a vulnerability being exploited. It involves identifying and prioritizing vulnerabilities, so resources can be allocated to fix the most critical ones first.
NEW QUESTION # 56
What is encryption?
- A. A process of converting plaintext into binary code to enhance data accessibility
- B. A process of converting binary code into plaintext to improve data reliability
- C. A process of converting ciphertext into plaintext to secure data integrity
- D. A process of converting plaintext into ciphertext to protect data confidentiality
Answer: D
Explanation:
Encryption is the process of converting plaintext (original data) into a coded or unreadable format known as ciphertext. This ensures that if the data is intercepted or accessed by unauthorized individuals, they would not be able to understand the information without the appropriate decryption key. Encryption is used to protect the confidentiality and privacy of sensitive data during transmission or storage.
NEW QUESTION # 57
What is a vulnerability in the context of cybersecurity?
- A. An advanced encryption algorithm
- B. A weakness in a system that can be exploited by threats
- C. A security measure that prevents unauthorized access
- D. A software bug that causes system crashes
Answer: B
Explanation:
A vulnerability refers to a weakness in a system that can be exploited by threats or attackers. It could be a flaw in software, a misconfiguration, or a gap in security controls that can be taken advantage of to gain unauthorized access, disrupt services, or compromise data. Identifying and addressing vulnerabilities is crucial to maintaining a secure cybersecurity posture.
NEW QUESTION # 58
Which protocol uses encryption for secure remote access to network resources?
- A. Internet Protocol Security (IPSec)
- B. Wireless Equivalent Privacy (WEP)
- C. Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP)
- D. Secure Shell (SSH)
Answer: D
Explanation:
Secure Shell (SSH) is a cryptographic network protocol that provides secure remote access and control of network resources. It employs encryption to protect data exchanged between the client and the server, ensuring the confidentiality and integrity of the communication. SSH is commonly used for remote administration and secure file transfers.
NEW QUESTION # 59
Which of the following is a characteristic of weak encryption algorithms?
- A. They are resistant to brute force attacks.
- B. They support secure communication protocols.
- C. They are susceptible to cryptanalysis attacks.
- D. They provide encryption keys with longer bit lengths.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Weak encryption algorithms are those that can be easily broken or exploited using various encryption analysis techniques. These algorithms have vulnerabilities that can be used to decrypt the encrypted data without the need for the encryption key.
NEW QUESTION # 60
What is the purpose of performing a vulnerability scan?
- A. To encrypt sensitive data transmission
- B. To identify any exploitable weaknesses in a system or network
- C. To assess the performance and latency of network devices
- D. To detect and block malicious network traffic
Answer: B
Explanation:
Vulnerability scanning is conducted to identify potential weaknesses or security flaws in a system or network that could be exploited by attackers. By conducting regular vulnerability scans, organizations can proactively discover and address vulnerabilities before they are exploited, ensuring the overall security and integrity of their systems. This helps in preventing unauthorized access, data breaches, and potential damage to the network infrastructure.
NEW QUESTION # 61
What is a common security threat in which an attacker attempts to overwhelm a targeted system by flooding it with Internet traffic?
- A. Phishing
- B. Ransomware
- C. SQL injection
- D. Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) attack
Answer: D
Explanation:
Option 1: Ransomware is a type of malicious software that encrypts a victim's files and demands a ransom in exchange for the decryption key. While it can cause damage to systems, it is not specifically designed to overwhelm a system with Internet traffic.
Option 2: Correct. A Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) attack is a common security threat in which an attacker attempts to overwhelm a targeted system by flooding it with Internet traffic. This can result in a loss of service availability for legitimate users.
Option 3: Phishing is a type of social engineering attack in which an attacker masquerades as a trustworthy entity to trick individuals into providing sensitive information. It does not involve overwhelming a system with Internet traffic.
Option 4: SQL injection is a type of web application attack in which an attacker manipulates a SQL query to gain unauthorized access to a database. It does not involve overwhelming a system with Internet traffic.
NEW QUESTION # 62
Which of the following best describes the concept of defense in depth in cybersecurity?
- A. Utilizing multiple layers of security controls to protect against different types of threats
- B. Encrypting sensitive data to maintain confidentiality
- C. Running regular vulnerability scans to maintain the integrity of the system
- D. Implementing access controls to ensure availability of critical resources
Answer: A
Explanation:
Defense in depth is a cybersecurity strategy that involves implementing multiple layers of security controls to protect against various types of threats. This approach provides greater resilience and mitigates potential vulnerabilities. By implementing multiple layers, even if one control fails, others can still safeguard the system.
NEW QUESTION # 63
Your company is creating a BYOD policy to allow employees to join their personal smartphones to the company network.
Which three requirements are commonly included in a BYOD policy? (Choose 3.)
- A. Synchronization of phone lock screen password with network access password
- B. Upgrade of data plan to maximum available
- C. Installation of secure apps only
- D. Deletion of all personal data from the phone
- E. Encryption of stored confidential corporate data
- F. Configuration of a strong password
Answer: C,E,F
Explanation:
The CCST Cybersecurity Study Guide explains that a BYOD policy (Bring Your Own Device) should outline security requirements for personally owned devices connecting to the corporate network. Common requirements include:
Device encryption for stored sensitive corporate data.
Strong password or PIN configuration for device access.
Restriction to secure and approved applications to reduce malware risk.
"BYOD policies typically mandate strong authentication, encryption of sensitive corporate data on personal devices, and installation of secure or approved applications. The goal is to protect corporate information while respecting personal ownership of the device." (CCST Cybersecurity, Endpoint Security Concepts, BYOD Security section, Cisco Networking Academy) A is incorrect: BYOD policies do not require deletion of personal data unless wiping after separation.
B is not a common requirement due to privacy and technical limitations.
E (upgrading data plans) is unrelated to security.
NEW QUESTION # 64
Which technology is commonly used to monitor network data and identify security incidents?
- A. SOAR (Security Orchestration, Automation, and Response)
- B. Firewall
- C. SIEM (Security Information and Event Management)
- D. IDS (Intrusion Detection System)
Answer: C
Explanation:
SIEM is a technology that focuses on monitoring network data to identify security incidents. It collects and analyzes security event logs from various sources, such as firewalls, intrusion detection systems (IDS), and antivirus software, to identify abnormal behavior or potential security incidents. SIEM solutions provide real-time monitoring, correlation, and alerting capabilities, enabling organizations to effectively detect and respond to security threats.
NEW QUESTION # 65
A remote worker is visiting a branch office to attend face-to-face meetings. The worker tries to associate their company laptop with the branch wireless access point (WAP) but is unable to do so.
What is a possible cause?
- A. The SSID is not broadcasting.
- B. The WAP is using open authentication.
- C. The WAP is configured for MAC address filtering.
- D. The IP address of the laptop is not correct.
Answer: C
Explanation:
The CCST Cybersecurity material explains that MAC address filtering is a wireless security measure that allows only devices with approved hardware addresses to connect. If the laptop's MAC address is not on the allow list, the connection will be blocked even if the SSID is correct.
"Wireless access points can be configured with MAC address filters to limit network access to authorized devices. If a device's MAC address is not on the permitted list, the connection will fail regardless of credentials." (CCST Cybersecurity, Basic Network Security Concepts, Wireless Security section, Cisco Networking Academy) A is unlikely because non-broadcast SSIDs can still be manually connected to.
B is correct: MAC address filtering would block an unregistered device.
C would cause IP issues after association, not prevent initial connection.
D (open authentication) would allow connection, so it's not the cause here.
NEW QUESTION # 66
Which of the following features help to secure a wireless SoHo network from unauthorized access?
- A. Default admin credentials
- B. SSID broadcast
- C. Weak encryption
- D. MAC filtering
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 67
Which regulation is aimed at protecting the privacy and security of personally identifiable information (PII) within the European Union?
- A. HIPAA
- B. GDPR
- C. PCI DSS
- D. BYOD
Answer: B
Explanation:
The General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) is a regulation that aims to protect the privacy and security of personally identifiable information (PII) of individuals within the European Union (EU). It provides guidelines and requirements for data processing, consent, transparency, and breach notification, among other aspects.
NEW QUESTION # 68
What is an Advanced Persistent Threat (APT)?
- A. A type of malware that spreads rapidly through a network.
- B. A sophisticated and targeted attack that aims to gain unauthorized access and maintain persistence over a long period.
- C. A vulnerability in network communication protocols.
- D. A cyberattack that compromises multiple devices simultaneously.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Advanced Persistent Threats (APTs) are stealthy and prolonged attacks targeted at specific organizations or entities. APTs typically employ sophisticated techniques, including social engineering and zero-day exploits. The primary objectives of APTs are to gain unauthorized access, maintain persistence within the target network or system, and conduct reconnaissance or exfiltrate sensitive data without being detected for an extended period of time.
NEW QUESTION # 69
What type of encryption is used to secure data that is stored on a hard drive or other storage media?
- A. File-based encryption
- B. Symmetric encryption
- C. Public Key Infrastructure (PKI)
- D. Hash encryption
Answer: B
Explanation:
Symmetric encryption is a type of encryption where the same key is used for both the encryption and decryption processes. It is commonly employed to secure data at rest, such as on a hard drive or other storage media. With symmetric encryption, the key must be kept secret to ensure the confidentiality of the encrypted data.
NEW QUESTION # 70
What is the purpose of encryption in network security?
- A. To monitor and detect network attacks
- B. To protect the confidentiality and integrity of data during transmission
- C. To prevent unauthorized physical access to network devices
- D. To authenticate and authorize users
Answer: B
Explanation:
Encryption is the process of transforming data into an unintelligible form (ciphertext) to protect its confidentiality and integrity during transmission. It ensures that even if the data is intercepted, it cannot be understood or modified without the encryption key. Encryption helps in safeguarding sensitive information from unauthorized access and tampering.
NEW QUESTION # 71
What is a common outcome of the policy development phase in cybersecurity planning?
- A. Identification of security vulnerabilities
- B. Creation of incident response plans
- C. Implementation of technical controls
- D. Development of security awareness training programs
Answer: D
Explanation:
The policy development phase in cybersecurity planning involves creating and documenting the policies and procedures that guide the organization's cybersecurity practices. It often includes the development of security awareness training programs to educate employees about their roles and responsibilities in maintaining cybersecurity and to promote good security practices throughout the organization.
NEW QUESTION # 72
Which of the following is an example of a human-caused disaster?
- A. Cyberattack
- B. Flood
- C. Tornado
- D. Earthquake
Answer: A
Explanation:
Cyberattacks, such as hacking, malware, or ransomware attacks, are considered human-caused disasters. They are intentional actions carried out by individuals or groups with malicious intent and can result in significant disruption, data loss, and financial damage if proper cybersecurity measures are not in place.
NEW QUESTION # 73
Which approach to risk management involves accepting the potential risk and not taking any specific action to mitigate it?
- A. Risk avoidance.
- B. Risk transfer.
- C. Risk acceptance.
- D. Risk mitigation.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Risk acceptance is an approach to risk management wherein the potential risk is acknowledged, and a conscious decision is made not to take any specific action to mitigate it. This approach is usually taken when the potential risk is deemed acceptable or when the cost of mitigating the risk outweighs the potential impact.
NEW QUESTION # 74
Which network security concept focuses on limiting network access based on user roles and responsibilities?
- A. Access control
- B. Network segmentation
- C. Intrusion detection
- D. Vulnerability scanning
Answer: A
Explanation:
Access control is a network security concept that focuses on limiting network access based on user roles and responsibilities. It ensures that users are granted appropriate permissions and privileges based on their job functions. Access control mechanisms can include username/password authentication, multi-factor authentication, and role-based access control (RBAC).
NEW QUESTION # 75
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